How does this work?

[Blacklightbulb]

If there was a programmer X who developed open-source software Y and then after some years closed the source code who ONLY HE had developed (wasn't improved by others). So if say programmer Z developed an application W who contains source code from the previously open-source software Y could programmer Z still use the source code?

[GeneralZod]

I think so: I don't think it's possible for Mr X to close the source (i.e. - change the license to a closed source one) retroactively, so if Z incorporated the code from Y at the time that Y was open source, he'd be in the clear for the future. IANAL, etc :)

[cascade9]

In short, yes. AFAIK.

[norm7446]

I think that as long as programmer X was fully compliant with DFSG rules and regulations. Programmer Z would have no problems in changing program Y as long as program Y was still under DFSG patent rules.

Which if it was to start of with. Then this hypothetical question about XY and Z who shall after be known as the party of the first part. Would have no leg to stand on if X the party of the second part removed twice, wanted to change Y the subsidiary in question that originated from , the party of the first part or is that the sceond.

[Blacklightbulb]

Thanks! Just clarifying!

[alienclone]

I think that as long as programmer X was fully compliant with DFSG rules and regulations. Programmer Z would have no problems in changing program Y as long as program Y was still under DFSG patent rules.

Which if it was to start of with. Then this hypothetical question about XY and Z who shall after be known as the party of the first part. Would have no leg to stand on if X the party of the second part removed twice, wanted to change Y the subsidiary in question that originated from , the party of the first part or is that the sceond.

i bet you drive your friends crazy, and enjoy it. ;)

[ssam]

similar thing happened with X11. in 2004 the dominant version was XFree86, when this project changed its license a group of developers took the last version with the old license and create a fork called X.org.

[norm7446]

i bet you drive your friends crazy, and enjoy it. ;)

Yes....

[sudoer541]

I think so: I don't think it's possible for Mr X to close the source (i.e. - change the license to a closed source one) retroactively, so if Z incorporated the code from Y at the time that Y was open source, he'd be in the clear for the future. IANAL, etc :)
thats illegal

[ubducted]

I'm no legal professional, but it's probably best to think of things in terms of the specific license the code is released under. "Open Source" has many types of licenses, some of which are OSI approved, some have gone through rigorous legal review, and others are just made up by the developer.

Depending on the license, I could even see it quite possible that the developer who closed their own previously open code could violate the license. :p

Once the code is released with a license, I am pretty sure it's bound to that license. Otherwise, what good is a license?

Let's say the code is under GPL. It's my understanding that a person could create closed source code that USES the GPL code as long as the GPL code hasn't been modified. Any modifications have to be released to the community. (I could be wrong though).