View Full Version : javascript question
tc101
March 17th, 2009, 06:06 PM
Suppose I have a function like this which calls a second function:
function Fun_1()
{
Fun_2();
}
How can I code this so I can pass the name of the second function
Fun_1(“Fun_2”)
function Fun_1(Fname)
{
How do I call Fname here?
}
Tibuda
March 17th, 2009, 06:08 PM
You can define functions as variables.
var fun2 = function() {
// Whatever
}
function fun1(f) {
f();
}
fun1(fun2);
tenmilez
March 17th, 2009, 08:15 PM
You could use the eval function.
not tested
f1("f_2");
function f1(f2) {
eval(f2 + "()");
}
function f_2() {
// stuff
}
simeon87
March 17th, 2009, 11:19 PM
You could use the eval function.
Eval shouldn't be used when it's not needed.
soltanis
March 18th, 2009, 02:09 AM
Store the function as a variable and pass the variable to the function, like in the first response.
tc101
March 18th, 2009, 03:16 AM
Thanks !
Reiger
March 18th, 2009, 05:31 AM
You can tweak the store-as-a-variable behaviour a little:
function f1 () {
}
function f2 (funct) {
}
var fvar = f1;
f2(fvar);
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