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hammad1337
December 14th, 2009, 08:22 AM
Considering this scenario:
I have 2 different connections to the internet on a single PC.
I have configured routing so that all the internet destinations are equally (same metric) accessible through both connections.

What happens?
-Does the kernel distribut connections on both routes equally?
-Does the kernel get confused and doesnot send packets at all?
-Does the connections become garbled (half the data sent through one and the rest through other route, thereby causing data corruption?
-Does the kernel use just one route and ignore the other?

lloyd_b
December 14th, 2009, 05:56 PM
Considering this scenario:
I have 2 different connections to the internet on a single PC.
I have configured routing so that all the internet destinations are equally (same metric) accessible through both connections.

What happens?
-Does the kernel distribut connections on both routes equally?
-Does the kernel get confused and doesnot send packets at all?
-Does the connections become garbled (half the data sent through one and the rest through other route, thereby causing data corruption?
-Does the kernel use just one route and ignore the other?

You can test for yourself via a 'traceroute', but I believe that the kernel will use only the first default route in the routing table if two are defined.

It *is* possible to "bond" the two interfaces, so that the workload is shared between them. I'd suggest searching the forums or Googling for "bonding" for more information (don't bother asking me - I know it can be done, but not how to do it :) ).

I wouldn't worry about data corruption - TCP is *designed* to have packets traveling on multiple pathways without corruption.

Lloyd B.